Originally posted by sigma:
It makes them possibly the same thing, as indirect is not always necessarily inverse. So "indirectly proportionate" is not necessarily the same thing as "inversely proportionate" although it can be.
Certainly it's not absolute, but for the purposes of my argument, it was. The only absolute in dealing with proportions is that the only one that is neither is 0.
Of course, for presentations, articles, and papers, we used 'inversely', but for common conversation I find it's easier and more understood to use 'indirectly', 'directly'.
EDIT: Check that, we spoke in terms of correlation, not proportion.
Last edited by Davo; 03/31/05 10:02 PM.
