Originally posted by Sandman333: Depends on your point of view. The right to marry heterosexually is available to all, gays included.
This is a really good point and for myself one of the most difficult to reconcile with my own beliefs.
The conclusion I hold to so far, is that the qualification dictated by the term "heterosexually" is in itself discriminatory.
In other words, that statement should hold true without qualification whatsoever.
Consider how your statement is different than saying "the right to marry is available to all, gays included." The difference is in the qualifying word which has the effect of exclusion.
For a rule to be truly non-discriminatory, it should be applicable without qualification; ie: you shouldn't have to qualify for a right.
The effect of the qualification is to exclude a minority and is therefore discriminatory, IMO.
